Rappaccini's Daughter (sonria) wrote in childfree,

question for the ladies, particularly if you're > 35

So I've been having some girlybits problems, and went to the gynecologist.

I've been bleeding since March 9, and if you look at the calendar today is March 23. That's definitely not normal, so I called the doctor. We've now ruled out three of the four known causes for such things (miscarriage, cancer and thyroid problems). I'm still waiting to find out if it's fibroids, but I've not had any of the other usual symptoms that come with those — no cramping, heavy flow, etc. I just won't quit bleeding (fortunately, it isn't heavy enough to cause anemia; it's just annoying as crap).

The gynecologist's current theory is that it may be one of the long cycles that start happening as you get in to menopause.

My reaction to that: um, I'm 38. And most of the women in my family go through "the change" in their mid- to late forties, with the last cycle right at age 50.

Her answer was to ask me if they'd had children. They have. That's when she told me that childfree women tend toward earlier menopause, and that given that the first symptoms can show up ten years before the final cycle, it's not unreasonable that I'd be having a menopause-related problem at this age.

So here's my question for the CF ladies: have you heard this from your gynecologist?

Understand, one of the reasons I stick with this gyn is that her reaction to finding out that I don't intend to have children was, "oh, okay. I'll note your records." And that was it; I've never gotten judgmental comments or even sideways looks. So I have no reason to think she's biased toward the idea that all women are supposed to have kids, and thus would make a statement such as this out of prejudice toward the childfree.

But I'd never heard it before, and Google searches are ambiguous. Does anyone have any experience with this?
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